Cafetero1108
New member
Curious observance was hoping to get some opinions and thoughts on. Apologies if this is not the right section.
So I obtained Reta30 from 2 separate sources, will not name names, but source A was dosed at 2mg with expected affects and sides. Received from source B and tried next vial from this kit. Same dose but no perceived physical affects. Pushed back on B a bit, and sent sample for 3p testing. Results are in at 99.8 purity and 104% fill.
Could the perceived lack of affects be some sort of placebo affect? Or what else might cause it?
So I obtained Reta30 from 2 separate sources, will not name names, but source A was dosed at 2mg with expected affects and sides. Received from source B and tried next vial from this kit. Same dose but no perceived physical affects. Pushed back on B a bit, and sent sample for 3p testing. Results are in at 99.8 purity and 104% fill.
Could the perceived lack of affects be some sort of placebo affect? Or what else might cause it?